No it is not true that equivalence relation makes a partition and Partition makes an equivalence relation always.
Let's take a way of changing an equivalence relation to a partition first
And for an example let's make a rule that take two numbers x and y such that x and y is divisible by 3,then it is an equivalence relation
Like this many Sets (partitions) can be formed
{0,3,6,9,12....}
{1,4,7,10,13...}
{2,5,8,11,14...}
But these partitions are going infinitely and these are disjointed and exhausted (and can't be brought back to an equivalence relation)
So this example proves that the statement is false .